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Jolan - see above; latest Chambers quoted

By gosh, Sheila, you're right. It IS in Chambers under infer, where they point out that 'imply' (often condemned as a misuse, but generally accepted for over four centuries).

I suppose it IS, therefore, acceptable. Not by me, though - four centuries or not.

Jolan - I can see this thread going on for a long time !

I have become invisible

Ditto !

Yes AJT. I wuz writing while you posted. From the principle definition of both words, I would be very loath to use them interchangably. As you saw from my last post, I saw it in Chambers. My motto, if in doubt - don't use it.

I cannot, for the life of me, see how "deduce from evidence or reasoning" = "indicate by suggestion". But, if the debate has gone on for centuries, it's unlikely to be settled here. Eh? Have a good day

NEVER, Chrisg and AJT. You are both among my very favourite contributors. It's just that I became caught up by my biggest "hobby-horse". My grovelling apologies.

I suppose being pedantic about words is a qualification for being a crossword fanatic, but we have to accept that language changes.

I would never have noticed this as an error, but now I know better. I like Jolan's English master's guide. It will be my rule of thumb.

Thank you all for your contribution to my thread. I may have been a bit harsh on Rufus in light of what has emerged (Chambers etc). BUT, I must go along with Pipesmoker's last comment.
It may well be in Chambers and, up until now, I would have considered Chambers "the final word". I have now realized "not 'everyone' is perfect".

The two words have distinct and seperate meanings.